I'm glad Mary Robinette Kowal is devoted enough to make an Austen word list and not use anything non-period in her historicals; and I'm glad she has so many editors and beta-readers to help her out in the task. But for the love of God, Montresor, why did none of them disentangle her confusion over lie and lay? and why did she not notice Austen's usage of same? (Granted, Jane's grammar and punctuation is occasionally sui generis.) But the fact remains that the past tense of lay is not lay, and pregnant women in the Regency did not have laying-ins.